Please help me please help mee

50

If 10 is 20% of a number, we can multiply it by 5 to get the original number.

So 10 * 5 = 50, and 20% of 50 is 10.

I hope this helps! :)

Answer:

You too!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

Ik it is cus ik my number lines

PLS MARK ME BRAINLIEST

Answer:

I think it's 8 I'm not sure

Answer:

[tex]m[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Combine like terms

[tex]-3m+(-2x)+4m+2x[/tex]

[tex](-3m+4m)+(-2x+2x)[/tex]

[tex](1m)+(0)[/tex]

[tex]m[/tex]

Answer:

m

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify like-terms first:

-3m + (-2x) + 4m + 2x

m + (-2x) + 2x

Both x's cancel each other out, so you're left with:

m

Answer:

  x = 2√13

Step-by-step explanation:

The geometric mean relationships in this geometry tell you that x is the geometric mean of the short segment of the hypotenuse (4) and the entire hypotenuse (13).

  x = √(4·13)

  x = 2√13

__

For more information, see https://brainly.com/question/25712788

Answer:

100 meters is 8.6 meters longer than 100 yards.

Step-by-step explanation:

Conversion of yards to meters.

Each yard has 0.914 meters.

So 100 yards is 100*0.9144 = 91.4 meters.

How many meters longer to the nearest tenth is 100 meters than 100 yards?

100 yards = 91.4 meters

100 - 91.4 = 8.6

So 100 meters is 8.6 meters longer than 100 yards.

Answer:

I believe the answer is B. 80, -160

Step-by-step explanation:

The pattern involves multipling by -2 so the term after that would be 320!

Answer:

my suggestion to you is that you use a ruler and a piece of paper to draw out the graph then plot the point down and draw the line.

(I hope this helps you!)

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

600 divided by 60 is 10

Answer:

-3/10+ 3/10

lcm=10

-3+3

______

10

=0/10 = 0

Answer:

-6/10

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps

14/99

Select 1 marble; the chance that it is white is 4/12. Select a 2nd marble; the chance that it is white is 3/11. Select a 3rd; the chance it is white is 2/10. Select a 4th; the chance it is red is 8/9. Select a 5th; the chance it is red is 7/8. The chance of getting this specific set of 5 marbles in this order is (4/12)×(3/11)×(2/10)×(8/9)×(7/8)=(2×7)/(11×10×9).

This specific set could occur in the permutation of 5 things taken 5 at a time where 3 are identical (white), and the other 2 are also identical (red). The formula for this is 5!/(3!2!)=10.

Combining the chance of getting white, white, white, red, red with the number of ways 3 white and 2 red could have been distributed in the draw of 5 marbles gives the answer:

{(2×7)/(11×10×9)}×10=14/99

A similar process will show that the chance of getting 5 red marbles is 7/99; 4 white and 1 red is 1/99; 2 white and 3 red is 42/99; and 1 white and 4 red is 35/99.

the value of variable x is 55 answer ok . angle q is 35 p is 90

Answer:

You are correct

Answer:

like i said no graph i cant help

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

X = 2

equation x [tex]\leq[/tex] 2

Step-by-step explanation:

You Factor out the common term 2 which will look like [tex]\frac{2(2x+1)}{5} \leq 2[/tex]

You do this because if you multiply 2*2x and 2*1 you will get 4x+2

Now you will multiply 5 on both sides to turn it into an equation and not a fraction [tex](5)\frac{2(2x+1)}{5}\leq 2 (5)[/tex]

So you would cross out the 5 on the left and the 5 as the denominator to make this an equation and multiply 2 by 5 to get ten your equation will look like            [tex]2(2x+1)\leq 10[/tex]

So now that you have your equation you divide both sides by 2 [tex]\frac{2(2x+1)}{2} \leq \frac{10}{2}[/tex]

you cross out the 2 on the left and 2 as the denominator and divide 10 and 2 to get 5.         [tex]2x+1\leq 5[/tex]  

Now you subtract one from both sides    [tex]2x+1\leq 5\\-1=-1\\2x=4[/tex]

you'll get 2x=4

divide both sides by 2 to get x=2

To check you will insert 2 into the original equation [tex]\frac{4x+2}{5} \leq 2[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4(2)+2}{5} \leq 2 = \\\frac{10}{5} \leq 2=\\2\leq 2[/tex]

since the sign means less than or equal to 2 you can say that [tex]2\leq 2[/tex] is a correct inequality equation

Answer:

The formula for the area of a hexagon is Area = (3√3 s2)/2; where 's' is the length of one side of the regular hexagon. The formula for the area of a hexagon can also be given in terms of the apothem as, Area of hexagon = (1/2) × a × P; where 'a' is the length of the apothem and 'P' is the perimeter of the hexagon.

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

slope formula is y2-y1 over x2-x1

if we plug in the values and solve, that gets you -3.

Answer:

-3

Explanation:

1-(-2) divided by 3-4

Answer:

3z+13

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter is found by adding all the sides

z+2+z+2+z+9

3 z variables  2+2+9=13

Simplified equals

3z+13

Hope this helps!

Please mark this answer as brainiest :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

z+2 + z + 2 + z + 9 = Perimeter               Collect like terms

3z + 13 = Perimeter

Answer: 45.5/100 = 455/1000

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

45.5% in its simplest form is

[tex] \frac{91}{2} [/tex]

but 45.5% =

[tex] \frac{91}{2} \ \times 100 = \frac{91}{200} [/tex]

Answer:

-2x-6y= -14 (i)

-6x-2y= -26 (ii)

Multiply eq (i) by 3

-6x-18y= -42 (iii)

-6x-2y= -26 (ii)

Subtract eq (iii) from ii

-6x -18y = -42

+6x+2y = +26

_______________

0 - 16y = -16

●y= 1

Put y =1 in eq 1

-2x -6 (1) = -14

-2x = -14 + 6

-2x = -8

●x =4

x=4 y=1

BRAINLIST PLS

Step-by-step explanation:

given,

MP = x - 8

PN = 3x - 9

MN = 21

we know,

according to segment addition postulate AB + BC = AC

now,

MP + PN = MN

→ x - 8 + 3x - 9 = 21

→ 4x - 17 = 21

→ 4x = 21 + 17

→ 4x = 38

→ x = 38/4 = 9

→ x = 9

therefore, value of x is 9.

hope this answer helps you dear! take care

Answer:

n = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{5}{15} = \frac{n}{9}[/tex]

Cross multiply

15n = 45

Divide

15n/15 = 45/15

n = 3

Answer:

The answer is no doubt about it

Answer:

19.59≈20

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a nice day

Using Pythagoras Theorem we can find the 3rd side of a right angled triangle.

Steps are there in the image I attached.

Hope it helps you...

Please mark as Brainlliest!!!

0111100109090909099999999999999999

Answer:

Its 53 because 1=1 and 2=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

∑[ (250)2 (400)2 (250)2 (350)^2 (100)2 (50)2] = 420,000.

Step-by-step explanation:

You first calculate the mean which is  is 2150.

You then subtract 2150 from the 6 values in turn

The first one = 2400 - 2150 = 250.

Then you square each of the 6 results and add them up - this comes to 420,000.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Area of the triangle

[tex] = {105m}^{2} [/tex]

Base of the triangle

= 15m

Let,

Height of the the triangle be h

Therefore,

By the problem,

[tex] = > \frac{1}{2} \times base \times height = 105[/tex]

[tex] = > \frac{1}{2} \times 15 \times h = 105[/tex]

[tex] = > h = \frac{105 \times 2}{15} [/tex]

=> h = 7 × 2

=> h = 14m

Hence,

The req. height of the triangle is 14 m (Ans)

Answer:

The answer is 14 m.

Step-by-step explanation:

Area = [tex]105^{2}[/tex]

Base = 15 m.

Height = ?

The formula for finding the area of triangle is

[tex]A = \frac{h_{b}b}{2}[/tex]

Put the values in the formula

[tex]105 = \frac{h_{b}15 }{2}[/tex]

Use MPE or Multiplication Property of Equality

210 = 15[tex]h_{b}[/tex]

Now use DPE or Division Property of Equality

[tex]\frac{210}{15} = \frac{15_{hb} }{15}[/tex]

14 = [tex]h_{b}[/tex]

The height of the triangle is 14 m.

To check, multiply the height and base to get the area.

14 * 15 = 105 [tex]m^{2}[/tex]