A closed fracture of the humerus is a break in the bone where the skin remains intact.
This type of fracture occurs when there is not enough force applied to break through the skin, such as in a fall or other accident. In a closed fracture of the humerus, the broken bone is typically surrounded by swelling and tenderness, and the arm may be difficult to move. In some cases, a deformed humerus may be visible.
Treatment of a closed fracture of the humerus often includes immobilization with a splint or cast and a period of physical therapy. Surgery is not typically required unless the fracture is particularly severe or a bone fragment has become lodged in the joint.
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an older adult client is admitted with the diagnosis of retinal detachment and is scheduled for laser surgery and scleral buckling procedure. the nurse anticipates which symptom(s) to be exhibited in this client? select all that apply.
The nurse anticipates the following symptoms to be exhibited in an older adult client with a diagnosis of retinal detachment who is scheduled for laser surgery and scleral buckling procedure:
The nurse anticipates that the patient may exhibit the following symptoms: Sudden flashes of light Seeing many specks of floating material, called floaters A curtain-like shadow over the visual field
The patient may have severe and painful vision lossIf the retinal detachment is a result of aging, it may have been gradually deteriorating the eyesight over weeks or months. Retinal detachment may also be a sudden event. The nurse may anticipate that the patient may have to go through surgical treatments to reattach the retina to the underlying tissue in the patient's eye.
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the nurse cares for a 7-year-old child with new-onset seizure disorder. which prescription will the nurse anticipate for this client?
The nurse can anticipate a prescription for an anticonvulsant medication to help control the seizure activity for the 7-year-old child with a new-onset seizure disorder.
Seizure disorder, also known as epilepsy, is a neurological disorder in which the brain produces abnormal electrical activity resulting in a variety of physical symptoms. The most common type of seizure is a generalized seizure, in which the whole brain is affected and the individual loses consciousness. Symptoms of a seizure can include physical je.rking movements, confusion, staring, and involuntary changes in behavior.
A seizure disorder can be caused by various factors, including genetic abnormalities, brain injury, or an underlying medical condition. Treatment for seizure disorder typically involves medications, lifestyle modifications, and surgery.
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the nurse is educating a group of people newly diagnosed with migraine headaches. what information should the nurse include in the educational session? select all that apply.
For people newly diagnosed with migraine headaches, the nurse should include the information about keeping a food diary and maintaining a headache diary.
Migraine headaches are a common type of primary headache that affects around 10-12% of the population. These headaches typically cause intense, throbbing pain on one side of the head, and they can last anywhere from 4 to 72 hours. Symptoms associated with migraine headaches can include nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light and sound, and visual disturbances.
Migraine headaches are usually caused by changes in hormones, stress, certain foods and drinks, and even weather changes. Treatment options include rest, avoiding triggers, over-the-counter or prescription medications, and lifestyle changes.
The nurse is educating a group of people newly diagnosed with migraine headaches. What information should the nurse include in the educational session? Select all that apply.
Use St. John's Wort.Maintain a headache diary.Sleep no more than 5 hours at a time.Keep a food diary.Exercise in a dark room.Learn more about migraine at https://brainly.com/question/1400356
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which is the most difficult aspect of treating patients with seizure disorders with regard to their medications?
enabling characteristics include the attributes of the surrounding area affecting the availability of healthcare. group of answer choices true false
Enabling characteristics include the attributes of the surrounding area affecting the availability of healthcare is true. Because enabling characteristics are the attributes of the surrounding area that affect the availability of healthcare.
Enabling characteristics are the socioeconomic, demographic, and geographic factors that determine the accessibility, availability, acceptability, and quality of healthcare. These include characteristics that support or deter people from utilizing medical care, as well as factors that influence the accessibility of health facilities or the quality of care provided.
The enabling characteristics of a community have a significant impact on healthcare usage and outcomes. Enabling characteristics can influence health-seeking behavior by affecting how much healthcare individuals require and the extent to which they use healthcare services. Thus, it is critical to comprehend these aspects when designing healthcare policies and strategies that aim to improve healthcare outcomes.
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the nurse working in the recovery room is caring for a client who had a radical neck dissection. the nurse notices that the client makes a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration. which intervention by the nurse is appropriate?
The nurse caring for a client who had a radical neck dissection. The nurse notices that the client makes a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration, the intervention by the nurse is to reposition the patient.
In other words, the nurse should alter the position of the client or change their posture. When the client experiences airway obstruction or hypoxia, the first step in management is to open the airway as much as possible.
The nurse is expected to initiate measures to address the high-pitched, coarse sound that is heard when the client inhales. This could be an indication of airway obstruction or hypoxia. To keep the airway as open as possible, a client with neck dissection may need to be placed in a sitting or semi-Fowler's position.
The airway could be obstructed by a hematoma, respiratory muscle dysfunction, or laryngeal oedema, among other factors.
The patient's status and responsiveness will be monitored by the nurse to ensure that the interventions are successful. The airway may need to be suctioned if secretions or blood obstruct it.
Supplementary oxygen is also given to the client when the client's oxygen saturation falls below normal (95%).
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a patient requests copies of her medical records in an electronic format. the hospital maintains a portion of the designated record set in a paper format and a portion of the designated record set in an electronic format. how should the hospital respond?
The hospital's response is to only provide the records in print format.
What does a medical record mean in terms of healthcare?When referring to the systematic documentation of a patient's medical history and care across time under the purview of a single health care professional, the phrases medical record, health record, and medical chart are sometimes used interchangeably. The documentation that details a patient's history, clinical findings, diagnostic test results, pre- and post-operative treatment, patient progress, and medication is called a medical record.The medical record request form is available for download in English and Spanish if you'd like to submit your request by mail, fax, email, or in person. Fill out the form, sign it, and send it to Medical Records or fax it to 847-984-5619.To learn more about medical record, refer to:
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which type of assessment would the nurse be expected to perform on the client who is 1 day postoperative following a cholecystectomy?
Answer:
focused
Explanation:
a nurse is educating a client about modifiable risk factors of primary hypertension. which topics will the nurse be discussing with this client? select all that apply.
The topics that the nurse will be discussing regarding modifiable risk factors of primary hypertension are:
High blood cholesterol levelsCigarette smokingObesityAlcohol consumptionHypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a chronic medical condition that increases the risk of developing serious health complications such as heart disease, stroke, and kidney failure. Several factors can contribute to hypertension, including modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors.
Modifiable risk factors are lifestyle behaviors or habits that can be changed or controlled to reduce the risk of developing hypertension. The nurse will be educating the client about modifiable risk factors that include high blood cholesterol levels, cigarette smoking, obesity, and alcohol consumption. By addressing these risk factors, the client can significantly reduce their risk of developing hypertension and improve their overall health outcomes.
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differentiate between the methylxanthine, selective beta-2, and anticholinergic drug agents, and select the drug class that produces mild stimulation of the central nervous system, heart, and kidneys and relaxation of smooth muscle.
Methylxanthines, selective beta-2 agonists, and anticholinergic drugs are three different classes of drugs used to treat various medical conditions.
Methylxanthines are a class of drugs that includes caffeine, theophylline, and theobromine. They are used primarily as bronchodilators in the treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Methylxanthines work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, which improves breathing. They also have mild stimulatory effects on the central nervous system (CNS) and heart, which can increase alertness and heart rate.
Selective beta-2 agonists, such as albuterol, formoterol, and salmeterol, are another class of bronchodilator drugs that are commonly used to treat asthma and COPD. Beta-2 agonists work by selectively activating beta-2 receptors in the smooth muscles of the airways, which leads to the relaxation of these muscles and improved breathing. Unlike methylxanthines, beta-2 agonists have a more selective effect on the lungs and do not have significant stimulatory effects on the CNS or heart.
Anticholinergic drugs, such as ipratropium and tiotropium, are also used as bronchodilators in the treatment of asthma and COPD. They work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes the contraction of smooth muscle. Anticholinergics do not have significant stimulatory effects on the CNS or heart.
Based on the description provided, the drug class that produces mild stimulation of the CNS and heart, and relaxation of smooth muscle, is methylxanthines. This is because methylxanthines have mild stimulatory effects on the CNS and heart, while also relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways.
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which client condition would the triage nurse provide care for first? chest pain with diaphoresis bruises and superficial lacerations severe pain as a result of displaced tendons complex lacerations associated with moderate hemorrhage
The client condition that the triage nurse would provide care for first would be chest pain with diaphoresis. Triage nursing is a critical component of patient care, which involves the sorting and prioritization of patients into groups depending on their need for care.
Triage nurses are in charge of assessing patients' symptoms, vital signs, and medical histories to determine which patients require immediate attention and which can wait.
They must also evaluate the severity and urgency of a patient's condition to determine whether to send them to the emergency room or other medical care facility.
Chest pain with diaphoresis is the most severe of the client's conditions, and the triage nurse should provide care for it first. Chest pain is a symptom that can be caused by a variety of medical conditions, including heart disease, pulmonary embolism, and aortic dissection.
Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, can be an indication of heart disease or other serious medical conditions. As a result, the triage nurse should provide care for this patient first to evaluate the cause of the chest pain and diaphoresis and provide necessary treatment.
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the client reports a mild stinging sensation after using a nasal spray decongestant. which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
The most appropriate response by the nurse when a client reports a mild stinging sensation after using a nasal spray decongestant is that the sensation is normal. This sensation is a common side effect of using a nasal spray decongestant. However, if the client experiences severe stinging or a burning sensation, they should discontinue the use of the nasal spray and seek medical attention.
In addition, it's important for the nurse to remind the client to follow the instructions provided on the nasal spray decongestant package or given by the healthcare provider. This includes using the correct dosage and administration technique. This will help minimize the occurrence of side effects such as a mild stinging sensation after using a nasal spray decongestant.
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which risks for infants are higher among pregnant adolescents? a. small for age b. obese c. iron deficiency d. large for age e. failure to thrive
Pregnant adolescents are at a higher risk for certain complications during pregnancy and delivery, which can increase the risk of certain outcomes for their infants.
Teenage mothers run the following higher-than-average risks for their unborn children:
Small for age: Adolescent mothers-to-be at an increased chance of giving birth to infants who are underweight for gestational age. (SGA). This is typically caused by insufficient prenatal weight gain, poor nutrition, or other health issues that may arise more commonly in adolescent pregnancies.
c. Iron deficiency: Adolescent women who are pregnant are also more likely to experience iron deficiency anemia, which can lead to premature birth and low birth weight.
Failure to thrive, which is defined as insufficient weight gain or growth throughout infancy, may be more common among babies of adolescent mothers. This could be the result of poor nutrition or other age-related issues for the mother.
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which options show a health benefit of muscular endurance and muscular strength? (select all that apply.)
Muscular endurance and muscular strength has several health benefits. There are several options that show health benefits of muscular endurance and muscular strength, some of which are: increased metabolic rate increased muscle mass increased bone density increased strength improved cardiovascular health reduced risk of chronic diseases reduced risk of injury.
A few more options showing health benefits of muscular endurance and muscular strength are:
1. Increased flexibility: Muscular endurance and strength are essential for increasing flexibility. The range of motion in muscles and joints can be increased with regular exercise, which can also help with balance and coordination.
2. Improved joint function: Muscular strength and endurance can help support and protect the joints, which is important for maintaining mobility and reducing the risk of injury.
3. Better mental health: Exercise can help reduce stress and anxiety, boost mood and self-esteem, and improve overall mental health. Regular exercise can also help prevent cognitive decline and improve brain function.
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the nurse is teaching a class for prenatal nutrition, focusing on teratogens. what food source should the nurse include as a teratogen?
The nurse should include alcohol as a teratogen while teaching a class on prenatal nutrition. Alcohol is a teratogen because it has the ability to cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus in a variety of ways.
Prenatal nutrition refers to the nutrient-dense foods, vitamins, and minerals that a mother consumes during pregnancy to support the health and development of her infant. The mother's eating habits, as well as her health status, are important factors to consider during pregnancy because they influence fetal growth and development.
A teratogen is a physical or environmental substance that increases the risk of developmental abnormalities in the embryo or fetus. Any agent that causes a malformation is referred to as a teratogen, which means "monster-forming.
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a school nurse is concerned that an increased number of students are reporting allergic symptoms after eating. on which factor should the nurse prioritize for a well-developed foreground question?
The nurse should prioritize identifying the source of the allergic reactions as the well-developed foreground question.
Allergic reactions are the body's response to a normally harmless substance, such as pollen or food. The body's immune system mistakenly recognizes the substance as harmful and releases chemicals, such as histamine, which cause the symptoms of an allergic reaction. Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include sneezing, runny nose, itchy and watery eyes, itching, hives, and swelling. In severe cases, an allergic reaction can lead to anaphylaxis, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.
Identifying the source of the allergic reactions is critical for the nurse to develop an effective plan for addressing the issue. The nurse should consider factors such as the student's diet, the environment, and the food that is served at the school.
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which instruction might the nurse give to nursing assistive personnel (nap) caring for a patient receiving a fat emulsion?
The instruction that the nurse might give to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) caring for a patient receiving a fat emulsion is "I will need to know the patient's vital signs every 4 hours." Thus, Option B is correct.
A fat emulsion is a medication that is administered intravenously, and it is important for nursing assistive personnel to monitor the patient for any adverse reactions, such as fever, chills, or rash, as well as any signs of leaking or breaks in the tubing that could compromise the effectiveness of the medication or even cause harm to the patient.
The correct instruction for NAP caring for a patient receiving a fat emulsion is to report the patient's vital signs every 4 hours to the nurse. Monitoring vital signs is crucial as fat emulsions can cause adverse effects such as fever, chills, hypotension, and tachycardia.
Nursing assistive personnel can play a vital role in monitoring patients' vital signs, and it is important for them to communicate any changes to the nurse promptly. This will ensure that the patient receives appropriate care and any adverse effects are detected and treated promptly.
Based on this explanation, the correct answer is B.
The complete question:
Which instruction might the nurse give to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) caring for a patient receiving a fat emulsion?
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the nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
The nurse can expect the provider to order a diuretic medication, such as: furosemide.
For this patient has developed marked edema and low urine output as a result of heart failure. Diuretics, such as furosemide, are medications that help to decrease the amount of excess fluid in the body, thereby reducing edema and improving urine output.
Step-by-Step Explanation:
1. The nurse can expect the provider to order a diuretic medication, such as furosemide, for this patient with heart failure who has developed marked edema and low urine output.
2. Diuretics are medications that help to reduce the amount of excess fluid in the body, by encouraging the kidneys to excrete more fluid in the form of urine.
3. Furosemide is a type of diuretic medication that acts on the kidney to increase urine output, thereby reducing edema and improving urine output.
4. By taking a diuretic medication, such as furosemide, the patient should experience an improvement in edema and an increase in urine output.
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a client has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (dic). the nurse knows that which statements regarding dic are true? select all that apply.
The correct statements regarding DIC that are true are:
Thrombotic occlusion occurs in small and midsized blood vessels.Bleeding may accompany coagulation.Generation of thrombin increases.Endogenous anticoagulation mechanisms are suppressed.Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is a condition where blood clots form throughout the body. It is caused by the body releasing certain proteins, which disrupts the body's normal clotting process. This can lead to excessive clotting, resulting in organ damage due to lack of blood flow. The symptoms of DIC include weakness, bleeding, and organ failure.
Treatment depends on the severity of the condition but may include blood transfusions, anticoagulants, and medications to reduce inflammation. If not treated promptly, DIC can lead to life-threatening complications such as stroke, sepsis, or organ failure. It is important to consult a doctor for proper diagnosis and treatment of DIC.
A patient has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The nurse knows that which statements regarding DIC are true? Select all that apply.
Thrombotic occlusion occurs in small and midsized blood vessels.Bleeding may accompany coagulation.Generation of thrombin increases.Endogenous anticoagulation mechanisms are suppressed.Learn more about DIC at https://brainly.com/question/28235396
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a side effect of using fertility drugs to improve the chances of becoming pregnant might be
A side effect of using fertility drugs to improve the chances of becoming pregnant might be the risk of multiple pregnancies, ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), and birth defects.
Fertility drugs are medications used to stimulate ovulation in women who have difficulty getting pregnant due to infertility or irregular ovulation. Fertility drugs, also known as ovulation induction, are commonly used in conjunction with other infertility treatments, such as intrauterine insemination (IUI) or in vitro fertilization (IVF), to increase the chances of pregnancy.The side effects of fertility drugs are not always severe, but they may include the following: Mood changesAbdominal pain, bloating, and nauseaHeadachesHot flashes and night sweats Breast tenderness or swellingOvarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)Risk of multiple pregnanciesBirth defectsThe chances of these side effects occurring vary from person to person and depend on the type of fertility medication used, the duration of treatment, and the patient's medical history. It is important to inform your doctor if you experience any side effects while taking fertility medication.Learn more about fertility drugs: https://brainly.com/question/14569598
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a patient undergoes a nuclear medicine scan that visualizes the heart from several different angles after the injection of a radioactive tracer. in his medical report, this procedure is identified as
A nuclear medicine scan is a procedure that is used to visualize the heart from several different angles after the injection of a radioactive tracer. This procedure is known as a Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT) scan.
The scan works by using a radioactive material, known as a tracer, which is injected into the patient's bloodstream.
This tracer is then monitored by a special camera that detects radiation and records images of the heart from different angles. These images can then be used to diagnose any abnormalities or blockages that may be present in the heart.
The SPECT scan helps to diagnose and evaluate conditions such as coronary artery disease, congestive heart failure, and valvular heart disease.
It can also be used to determine the effectiveness of treatments such as surgery, angioplasty, and bypass.
The scan is performed in a nuclear medicine laboratory. During the procedure, the patient lies down on a scanner bed and the tracer is injected into the patient's arm. The scanner then takes images of the heart from different angles and these images are used to create a 3D image.
The SPECT scan is a safe and reliable procedure that can provide important information about a patient's heart health. The results of the scan can help doctors diagnose and treat heart conditions, allowing for better treatment outcomes.
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the nurse is in the evaluation phase of the nursing process when developing the plan of care for a client. what should the nurse determine this phase will include? select all that apply
The evaluation phase of the nursing process is the last and crucial step that involves evaluating whether the goals have been achieved or not. In developing the plan of care for a client, the nurse determines whether or not the goals have been achieved.
Whether the care plan was appropriateThe effectiveness of the care plan improvement in the client's health status. The evaluation phase includes deciding whether the client's health status has improved, what changes have occurred, and how effective the care plan has been.
This phase is significant as it enables the nurse to determine whether to revise the plan, terminate it, or initiate new interventions to address the client's healthcare needs. Consequently, the evaluation phase of the nursing process is vital in assessing the effectiveness of the nursing care plan and making decisions regarding further interventions to meet the client's health needs. In conclusion, the nurse determines the effectiveness of the care plan, the improvement in the client's health status, and whether the care plan was appropriate in the evaluation phase of the nursing process.
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which action would the nurse anticipate when admitting a client having a sickle cell crisis to the nursing unit? select all that apply
When admitting a client having a sickle cell crisis to the nursing unit, the nurse should anticipate the following actions:
Assessing the client's pain and initiating treatment Monitoring vital signs and oxygen saturation Administering oxygen Administering medicationsDuring a sickle cell crisis, a client's pain can be intense and need to be managed with medications and oxygen. Vital signs and oxygen saturation also need to be monitored regularly to assess the client's overall condition. Depending on the severity of the crisis, medications may need to be administered to control pain and prevent further complications.
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propranolol is ordered for a client that has type 1 diabetes mellitus. which client statement indicates understanding of a common side effect of this therapy?
The client's statement that indicates an understanding of a common side effect of Propranolol therapy for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is "I should check my pulse daily before taking the medication."
Explanation:Propranolol is a medication that works by blocking the effects of adrenaline in the body. It is commonly prescribed for hypertension, angina, heart attack, and migraine prevention. However, this medication is not recommended for individuals with type 1 diabetes because it can mask the symptoms of low blood sugar levels, such as rapid heartbeat and tremors. A common side effect of Propranolol therapy is the slowing of the heart rate, which can cause hypotension, dizziness, and fainting.
Therefore, the client's statement that indicates an understanding of a common side effect of this therapy is "I should check my pulse daily before taking the medication." This statement demonstrates that the client is aware of the potential side effects of Propranolol therapy and is taking the necessary precautions to prevent any adverse effects.
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which topic is a priority to include in teaching when a client with acute coronary syndrome (acs) is admitted to the coronary intensive care unit
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a medical emergency and a priority topic to include when teaching clients admitted to the Coronary Intensive Care Unit. The main components of this topic are recognizing the signs and symptoms, understanding emergency management, and promoting preventative strategies.
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe a range of conditions related to sudden, reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. The most common cause is a blockage of one or more of the coronary arteries due to a blood clot. ACS is classified into two types: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI).
Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, nausea, and sweating. Treatment for ACS depends on the severity of the condition and may involve medication, lifestyle changes, and/or surgery. It is important to receive prompt medical care for any symptoms of ACS to prevent further damage to the heart.
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the nurse and an adolescent are reviewing the adolescent's record of her headaches and activities surrounding them. what activity would the nurse identify as a possible trigger?
The nurse may identify lack of sleep, stress, dehydration, or certain foods as possible triggers for the adolescent's headaches.
Adolescents often experience headaches due to lack of sleep, dehydration, stress, or certain foods. Sleep deprivation can cause headaches due to the lack of energy and low blood sugar levels, while dehydration can lead to headaches caused by dehydration-induced hormones. Stress can also lead to headaches, as well as certain foods, as some foods can trigger migraine headaches.
Headaches are pain or pain in the head that can appear gradually or suddenly. Headache pain can appear on one side of the head, be concentrated at a certain point, or spread to all parts of the head.
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which instruction about the use of nitroglycerin to prevent angina will the nurse provide to a client
The nurse will instruct the client to take one nitroglycerin tablet at the onset of angina, wait five minutes, and if the pain does not subside, take a second tablet. The client should not take more than three tablets in one hour. If symptoms persist, they should call their doctor.
Nitroglycerin is a drug that is used to treat angina. Angina is a condition that causes chest pain, discomfort, or tightness due to a reduction in blood flow to the heart. Nitroglycerin works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the blood vessels, which increases blood flow to the heart and reduces the workload on the heart.
Nitroglycerin is usually administered sublingually (under the tongue) as a tablet or spray. It can also be administered intravenously or topically as a patch or ointment. The effects of nitroglycerin usually start within 1 to 5 minutes after administration and last for about 30 minutes to an hour. Nitroglycerin is a powerful vasodilator and can cause some side effects, including headaches, dizziness, nausea, and low blood pressure.
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which goal is the nurse trying to achieve with continuous bladder irrigations of a client who has undergoen a suprapubic postatectomy for cancer of the prostate
The goal of continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) of a client who has undergone a suprapubic prostatectomy for cancer of the prostate is to prevent the bladder from becoming overdistended, to maintain a steady output of urine, and to promote healing of the surgical site.
CBI is a technique used to fill and empty the bladder in order to keep it from becoming overly distended, or stretched. CBI consists of inserting a catheter into the bladder and using a sterile saline solution to fill the bladder up to a predetermined amount. The solution is then removed, and the cycle is repeated. The amount of solution used for the irrigation is usually about 500 mL, and the amount of time between irrigations is usually about 30 minutes.
CBI is a critical part of post-operative care for patients who have undergone a suprapubic prostatectomy for cancer of the prostate, as it helps to maintain a steady output of urine and to promote healing of the surgical site.
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a client diagnosed with asthma has been prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist. what information should the nurse include when discussion medication instructions with this client?
When discussing medication instructions with a client who has been prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist for asthma, the nurse should provide the following information: Instruct the patient to take the medication exactly as prescribed.
The nurse should explain that the medication is taken daily to prevent asthma attacks and should not be used to treat an acute attack and that it may take several days to start working. The medication should be taken at the same time each day, usually at bedtime.
Instruct the patient to never double the dose of the medication if they miss a dose. If a patient forgets to take a dose, they should take it as soon as they remember. However, if it is almost time for their next scheduled dose, they should skip the missed dose and continue with their regular dosing schedule. Instruct the patient not to stop taking the medication abruptly without consulting with their healthcare provider.
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the nursing assessment findings reveal joint swelling and tenderness in the great toe of a client. what does the nurse suspect?
The nursing assessment findings reveal joint swelling and tenderness in the great toe of a client. The nurse suspects gout.
What is Gout? Gout is a type of arthritis that results from a buildup of uric acid in the blood, which then causes the formation of crystals in the joints.
Gout is a common cause of joint swelling and tenderness in the great toe. Gout symptoms include:
Joint pain (typically in the big toe)
Swelling and redness in the affected joint
Limited range of motion in the affected joint
The affected joint is warm to the touch.
The skin surrounding the affected joint can be shiny and stretched, and it may peel or flake.
Elevated uric acid levels can cause gout attacks in some individuals. High uric acid levels can be caused by: obesity, hypertension, a high-sugar diet, alcohol consumption, a high-purine diet, which is high in red meat, organ meats, and shellfish.
In conclusion, the nursing assessment findings reveal joint swelling and tenderness in the great toe of a client. The nurse suspects gout.
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